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Shatranj apeared in Persia in Sasanid era, long before Islam. So saying that Shatranj is a fruit of the islamic culture is not ture. Even if shatraj where invented in islamic era in Persia, you could not call it 'arabic' since Persians are not arab, now being muslim or not... And remember that the history of the Persia goes back to 3000 years ago and Islam only apeared 1400 years ago. So, more than a 1600 years there was a Persian country that was not either Muslim (it preceded Islam) and was never Arabic. It's wrong to credit shatranj to Arabs just 'cause that Persians became muslim in the course of the history years after it's invention...