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First move advantage in Western Chess - why does it exist?[Subject Thread] [Add Response]
H. G. Muller wrote on Mon, Aug 13, 2012 07:49 AM UTC:
> HG, I don't see why/how a first-move advantage would stay
> strong as piece ranges decreases.

Well, let me put it this way then: Suppose I am going to do a race between
two grasshoppers (the animal, not the chess piece), and I give one of the
two a lead of 100 hops. Which one will stand the better chance to win?

Now suppose I do the same thing with two ants, giving one a lead of 100
paces. Who has the better chances now?

If Chieftain Chess has no first-move advantage (something I consider by no
means proven, and in fact unlikely), IMO it can only be because it does not
have promotion. But I would only accept Chieftain Chess has no first-move
advantage if it was demonstrated in computer self play.